Latest Updates

Posted On: 26-10-2025
256. (SC) (Decided on: 19.09.2025)

A. Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 (26 of 1881), Section 138 Proviso (b) – Cheque bounce complaint – Demand notice u/ 138 of NI Act – Validity of -- It is mandatory that the demand in the statutory notice has to be the very amount of the cheque -- After mentioning the exact cheque amount, the sender of the service may claim in the notice amounts such as legal charges, notice charges, interest and such other additional amounts, provided the cheque amount is specified to be demanded for payment -- When the cheque amount is not mentioned in the Proviso (b) notice or the amount different than the actual cheque amount is mentioned, in the notice, such notice would stand invalid in eye of law -- In the event of the main ingredient not being satisfied on account of discrepancy in the amount of cheque and one mentioned in the notice, all proceedings u/s 138 of the NI Act would fall flat as bad in law.

(Para 8)

B. Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 (26 of 1881), Section 138 Proviso (b) – Cheque bounce complaint – Demand notice u/ 138 of NI Act – Validity of -- Cheque which was drawn by the respondent was for Rs.1,00,000/- whereas in the notice issued under Proviso (b) to Section 138 of the NI Act against the respondent, appellant mentions the amount of Rs.2,00,000/- -- Rigours of law on this score being strict, the defence would not hold good that the different amount mentioned in the notice was out of inadvertence -- Even if the cheque number was mentioned in the notice, since the amount was different, it created an ambiguity and differentiation about the ‘said amount’ -- Any elasticity cannot be adopted in the interpretation -- It has to be given technical interpretation -- Typographical error can be no defence -- Notice stood invalid and bad in law -- Order of quashment of notice was eminently proper and legal.

(Para 8.1, 8.2, 10)

C. Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 (26 of 1881), Section 138 Proviso (b) – Cheque bounce complaint – Demand notice u/ 138 of NI Act – Validity of -- When the provision is penal and the offence is technical, there is no escape from holding that the ‘said amount’ in proviso (b) cannot be the amount other than mentioned in the cheque in question for dishonour of which the notice is received, nor the mentioning of omnibus amount in the notice would fulfil the requirement -- It has to be held that in order to make a valid notice under the Proviso (b) to Section 138 of the NI Act, it is mandatory that ‘said amount’ to be mentioned therein is the very amount of cheque, and none other.

(Para 9)

Posted On: 25-10-2025
259. (SC) (Decided on: 15.10.2025)

A. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (V of 1908), Order 7 Rule 11 (d) – Rejection of plaint – Suit barred by law -- While considering rejection of the plaint thereunder only the averments made in the plaint and nothing else is to be considered to find out whether the suit is barred by law -- At this stage, the defense is not to be considered -- Thus, whether the suit is barred by any law or not is to be determined on the basis of averments made in the plaint.

(Para 15)

B. Mutation entries -- It is well settled that mutation entries do not confer title -- They serve a fiscal purpose, that is, to realize tax from the person whose name is recorded in the revenue records.

(Para 16)

C. Limitation Act, 1963 (36 of 1963), Article 65 – Suit for declaration and possession – Limitation -- Suit was not for a mere declaration of the Will being null and void but for possession as well -- Plaintiff claimed title over the suit land by natural succession and sought possession based on title – Where a suit is for possession of immovable property or any interest therein, based on title, the limitation period is 12 years when the possession of the defendants becomes adverse to the plaintiff.

(Para 17)

D. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (V of 1908), Order 7 Rule 11 (d) – Limitation Act, 1963 (36 of 1963), Section 27, Article 65 – Rejection of plaint -- Limitation – Adverse possession -- When a suit is instituted for possession, based on title, to defeat the suit on the ground of adverse possession, the burden is on the defendant to prove adverse possession for the prescriptive period -- This, therefore, cannot be an issue on which the plaint could be rejected at the threshold.

(Para 18)

E. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (V of 1908), Order 7 Rule 11 (d) – Partial rejection of plaint – Permissibility of -- Where several reliefs are sought in suit, if any one of the reliefs is within the period of limitation, the plaint cannot be rejected as barred by law by taking recourse to Order 7 Rule 11 (d) of CPC.

(Para 19)

F. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (V of 1908), Order 2 Rule 2, Order 7 Rule 11 (d) – Rejection of plaint -- Suit barred by Order 2 Rule 2 of CPC – Plea of -- First suit instituted by the predecessor-in-interest of the appellant was not tried -- In fact, the plaint of that suit was rejected under Order 7 Rule 11 of CPC as not being properly framed -- In such circumstances, a fresh suit with appropriate relief cannot be, prima facie, barred by Rule 2 of Order 2 of CPC -- Therefore, the trial court was justified in directing that the issue, whether the suit is barred by Order 2 Rule 2 of CPC, shall be considered and decided during trial.

(Para 22)

Posted On: 24-10-2025
265. (P&H HC) (Reserved on: 10.01.2025 Decided on: 21.01.2025)

A. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), Section 437(3) – Constitution of India, Article 21 -- Bail conditions – Surrender of passport – Permissibility of -- When a person is made to surrender his passport, it curtails his right of movement beyond the country -- Power to impound a passport is given to the passport authority under the Passport Act – Criminal courts have to take extreme care in imposing such condition – It cannot mechanically, and in every case where an accused has a passport impose a condition for its surrender – Court has to strike a balance between personal liberty of the accused guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution, investigation rights of the police and the interest of the society -- If necessary, it is open to the criminal court direct the accused to execute bond in case he has to go abroad for any purpose, for appropriate amount with sureties.

(Para 14)

B. Passports Act, 1967 (15 of 1967), Section 10(3)(e) – Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), Section 102(1), 104 – Impounding of Passport – Power of -- Section 10(3)(e) of the Passport Act specifically deals with impounding of passport whereas Section 104 Cr.P.C., allows the Court to impound the document to produce before the Court -- The Passport Act overrides the provision of Cr.P.C., for the purpose of impounding passport -- Order directing to surrender the passport indefinitely amounts to impounding of the passport itself -- As per Section 102(1) of Criminal Procedure Code, the power of police officer is there to seize certain property -- Police may have the power to seize a passport under Section 102(1) of the Criminal Procedure Code but it does not have the power to impound the same.

(Para 15, 16)

C. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), Section 102(1), 104 – Seizure – Impounding of document -- There is a difference between seizing of a document and impounding a document -- A seizure is made at a particular moment when a person or authority takes into his possession some property which was earlier not in his/her possession -- Thus, seizure is done at a particular moment of time. However, if after seizing of a property or document, the said property or document is retained for some period of time, then such retention amounts to impounding of the property or document -- The word “impounding” really means retention of possession of a good or a document which has been seized.

(Para 17)

D. Passports Act, 1967 (15 of 1967), Section 10(3)(e) – Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), Section 102(1), 104 – Constitution of India, Article 14 -- Seizure of passport – Impounding of passport – Duty of Police -- Doctrine of natural justice --  If the police seizes a passport, thereafter the police must send it along with a letter to the passport authority clearly stating that the seized passport deserves to be impounded for one of the reasons mentioned in Section 10(3) of the Act -- It is thereafter the passport authority to decide whether to impound the passport or not -- Since impounding of a passport has civil consequences, the passport authority must give an opportunity of hearing to the person concerned before impounding his passport.

(Para 18)

E. Passports Act, 1967 (15 of 1967), Section 10(3)(e) – Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), Section 102(1), 104 – Impounding of passport – Power of Trial Court -- Trial Court cannot impound a passport -- Section 104 Criminal Procedure Code states that the Court may, if it thinks fit, impound any document or thing produced before it but this provision will only enable the Court to impound any document or thing other than a passport as impounding a “passport” is provided for in Section 10(3) of the Passports Act – Special law prevails over the general law -- Passports Act is a special law while the Criminal Procedure Code is a general law -- Hence, impounding of a passport cannot be done by the Court u/s 104 of Cr.P.C. though it can impound any other document or thing.

(Para 18)

Posted On: 22-10-2025
266. (SC) (Decided on: 13.05.2025)

A. Indian Penal Code, 1860 (45 of 1860), Section 498A – Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, (Act No. 28 of 1961), Section 3, 4 -- Cruelty – Dowry demand -- An act of ‘cruelty’ for the purpose of Section 498A, corresponds to a willful conduct of such nature, that may cause danger to the life, limb and health of the woman, which is inclusive of the mental and physical health and the harassment caused to her, by coercing her to meet unlawful demands or impossible standards -- Demand for dowry in terms of Section 3 and Section 4 of the D.P. Act, 1961 refers to both a direct or indirect manner of demand for dowry made by the husband or his family members -- In order to meet the threshold of the offences u/s 498A IPC & Sections 3 & 4 of the D.P. Act, 1961, the allegations cannot be ambiguous or made in thin air.

(Para 8)

B. Indian Penal Code, 1860 (45 of 1860), Section 498A, 323, 506 – Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, (Act No. 28 of 1961), Section 3, 4 -- Cruelty – Acquittal -- Allegations that appellant and her family physically beat her up; whereas she has not mentioned the time, date, place, or manner in which the alleged harassment occurred -- It is alleged that the Complainant suffered a miscarriage, as she fell down, when the Appellant and her family who pushed her out of the house; however, no medical document from any medical institution or hospital or nursery was produced to substantiate the allegations -- It cannot be ignored that the FIR dt. 20.12.1999 was registered after the Appellant had filed the Divorce Petition u/s 13 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 on 06.02.1999 -- Complainant had cohabited with the Appellant only for a period of about a year -- FIR registered by the Complainant was not genuine -- High Court while exercising its revisionary jurisdiction ought to have examined the correctness of decision of the Trial Court in light of the material on record, which reveals nothing incriminatory against the Appellant to sustain a conviction u/s 498A IPC or Section 4 of the D.P. Act, 1961 – Marriage of the Appellant has already been dissolved and the divorce decree has attained finality, hence any further prosecution of the Appellant will only tantamount to an abuse of process of law -- Appellant acquitted of all the charges.

(Para 9-15)

Posted On: 22-10-2025
268. (SC) (Decided on: 23.05.2025)

A. Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002, (54 of 2002), Section 11 – SARFAESI -- Arbitration – Dispute between two banks – Common security interest -- Where such enforcement of security interest, by either bank is sought to be undertaken in terms of the SARFAESI Act, the statutory arbitration provided under Section 11 of the SARFAESI Act would immediately be attracted, as soon as there is a dispute in respect to the same with another bank, financial institution, ARC etc, as enumerated in the said provision -- Section 11 of the SARFAESI Act, statutorily empowers such parties mentioned therein, to seek resolution of their dispute by way of arbitration, and their right cannot be curtailed or confined to any executive guideline or memorandum.

(Para 12,2, 123)

B. Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002, (54 of 2002), Section 11 – SARFAESI -- Arbitration -- Section 11 of the SARFAESI Act deals with resolution of disputes relating to securitisation, reconstruction or non-payment of any amount due between the bank or financial institution or asset reconstruction company or qualified buyer -- In order to attract the provision of Section 11 of the SARFAESI Act, twin conditions have to be fulfilled being;

first, the dispute must be between any bank or financial institution or asset reconstruction company or qualified buyer and

secondly, the dispute must relate to securitisation or reconstruction or non-payment of any amount due including interest.

Where the aforesaid two conditions are found to be prima-facie satisfied, there the DRT will have no jurisdiction and the proper recourse would only be through Section 11 of the SARFAESI Act read with the Act, 1996.

(Para 124(i)(ii))

C. Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002, (54 of 2002), Section 11 --   SARFAESI -- Arbitration -- Amount -- The expression “non-payment of any amount due, including interest” used in Section 11 of the SARFAESI Act is of wide import and would include a various range of scenarios of ‘disputes’ connected to unpaid amounts including those arising due to third-party defaults, such as indirect defaults of the borrowers.

(Para 124(iii))

D. Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002, (54 of 2002), Section 2(f), 11 --  SARFAESI – Arbitration – Borrower-Lendor relationship – Effect of -- Any dispute between two banks, financial institutions, asset reconstruction companies or qualified buyers etc., where the jural relation between the two is of a lender and borrower, then Section 11 of the SARFAESI Act will have no application whatsoever -- The use of the phrase “any person” in the definition of ‘borrower’ in Section 2(f) of the SARFAESI Act, makes it abundantly clear that even a bank, financial institution or asset reconstruction company or qualified buyer can be considered a borrower, if they receive financial assistance from a bank or financial institution etc by providing or creating a security interest -- Thus, a lender-turned-borrower would also fall within the scope of a “borrower” under the SARFAESI Act and shall be governed by the same statutory framework as any ordinary borrower.

(Para 124(iv))

E. Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002, (54 of 2002), Section 11 -- SARFAESI  -- Arbitration agreement  -- Requirement of -- Section 11 of the SARFAESI Act, provides for a statutory arbitration for any dispute mentioned therein between any of the parties enumerated thereunder -- There is no need for an explicit written agreement to arbitrate between such parties in order to attract Section 11 of the SARFAESI Act -- Said provision creates a legal fiction as regards the existence of an arbitration agreement notwithstanding whether such agreement exists or not in actuality.

(Para 124(v))

F. Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002, (54 of 2002), Section 11 -- SARFAESI  -- Arbitration – Nature of -- Section 11 of the SARFAESI Act is mandatory in nature -- The use of the word “shall” therein, the mandate of the said provision cannot be bypassed or subverted by the parties by seeking recourse elsewhere.

(Para 124(vi))

Posted On: 22-10-2025
269. (SC) (Decided on: 09.01.2025)

A. Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002, (54 of 2002), Section 5(5), 13, 17, 19, 34 -- Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (V of 1908), Order 7 Rule 11, Section 9  -- Rejection of plaint -- SARFAESI proceedings – Title/ mortgage documents – Challenge to – Jurisdiction of civil court/ DRT -- From Section 17, it is clear that it is only the Tribunal that has the jurisdiction to determine whether “any of the measures referred to in sub-section (4) of Section 13 taken by the secured creditor” are in accordance with the Act or Rules thereunder -- The plaintiff in her suit has prayed for 3 reliefs:

a) The first relief is in relation to a sale deed executed by SCJ in favour of PDP.

b) The second relief is in relation to a mortgage deed executed by PDP in favour of the bank.

c) The third relief is for being handed over the possession of the suit property.

So far as the first and second reliefs are concerned, they are not in relation to any measures taken by the secured creditor under Section 13(4) of the SARFAESI Act -- Rather, they are reliefs in relation to the actions taken prior to the secured creditor stepping into the picture and well prior to the secured creditor invoking the provisions of the SARFAESI Act -- DRT does not have the jurisdiction to grant a declaration with respect to the mortgage deed or the sale deed as sought by the Plaintiff -- The jurisdiction to declare a sale deed or a mortgage deed being illegal is vested with the Civil Court u/s 9 of the CPC – Held, the civil Court has the jurisdiction to finally adjudicate upon the first two reliefs -- Even if the Court take the view that the third relief is barred by Section 17(3) of the SARFAESI Act, still the plaint must survive because there cannot be a partial rejection of the plaint under Order VII, Rule 11 of the CPC -- Even if one relief survives, the plaint cannot be rejected under Order VII, Rule 11 of the CPC.

(Para 12-18, 24)

B. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (V of 1908), Order 7 Rule 11, Section 9  -- Rejection of plaint – Partial relief not barred by law – Duty of Court -- If the civil court is of the view that one relief (say relief A) is not barred by law but is of the view that Relief B is barred by law, the civil court must not make any observations to the effect that relief B is barred by law and must leave that issue undecided in an Order VII, Rule 11 application -- Because if the civil court cannot reject a plaint partially, then by the same logic, it ought not to make any adverse observations against relief B.

(Para 25)

C. Loan by Banks -- Title clearance report -- Guidelines -- Banks should remain very careful with inadequate title clearance reports, more particularly, when such reports are obtained cheaply and at times for external reasons -- This concerns the protection of public money and is in the larger public interest -- Therefore, it is essential for the Reserve Bank of India and other stakeholders to collaborate in developing a standardized and practical approach for preparing title search report before sanctioning loans and also for the purpose of determining liability (including potential criminal action) of the Officer who approves loan -- Additionally, there should be standard guidelines for fees and costs associated with title search reports so as to ensure that they maintain high quality.

(Para 44)

Posted On: 20-10-2025
274. (P&H HC) (Decided on: 05.04.2025)

A. Indian Penal Code, 1860 (45 of 1860), Section 153A, 505(2) – Mens rea -- Promoting/ creating or promoting enmity, hatred or ill-will between classes -- Mens rea is a necessary ingredient for the offence u/s 153A -- Mens rea is an equally necessary postulate for the offence u/s 505(2) also -- Balwant Singh and another vs. State of Punjab (1995 3 SCC 214) relied -- Main distinction between the two offences is that publication of the word or representation is not necessary under the former, such publication is sine qua non u/s 505 IPC -- The words "whoever makes, publishes or circulates" used in the setting of Section 505(2) cannot be interpreted disjunctively but only as supplementary to each other.

(Para 9, 10)

B. Indian Penal Code, 1860 (45 of 1860), Section 153A, 505(2) – Promoting/ creating or promoting enmity, hatred or ill-will between classes – FIR against Film Producer -- Two communities/ Groups required -- It is necessary that atleast two such groups or communities should be involved -- Merely inciting the feeling of one community or group without any reference to any other community or group cannot attract either of the two sections -- Petitioner who has not done anything as against any religious, racial or linguistic or regional group or community cannot be held guilty of either the offence under Section 153A or under Section 505(2) of IPC.

(Para 13, 14)

C. Indian Penal Code, 1860 (45 of 1860), Sections 153, 153-A, 153-B, 160, 107, 505 – Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), Section 482 -- Promoting/ creating or promoting enmity, hatred or ill-will between classes – FIR against Movie producer -- Certification by CBFC – Effect of -- Quashing of FIR – FIR registered on the basis of a trailer and the complainant had lodged the FIR, without even watching the movie and seeing the offending contents of the movie -- Even, there is no evidence to suggest that the petitioner had provoked any person with an intention that such provocation will cause the offence of rioting -- Law is well settled that the certification issued by the CBFC, i.e., statutory body, guarantees that movie in question satisfies the requirement of law and may be exhibited for the public watching -- Further, the statute itself provides the remedy of appeal and judicial review and any person can avail his remedy in accordance with law -- Neither the State of Punjab nor any other individual had challenged the ground of certification -- FIR in question is clearly an abuse of the process of the law.

(Para 16-19)

Posted On: 20-10-2025
275. (Patna HC) (Decided on: 23.09.2025)

A. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), Section 397(2) – Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (46 of 2023), Section 438(2) -- Criminal trial -- Intermediate order – Interlucatory order – Revisional jurisdiction – Inherent powers -- All orders other than the final orders are not interlocutory ones -- Some of them are intermediate or quasi final orders -- Intermediate order is one which is passed at intermediate stage, but when reversed, it has the effect of terminating the proceedings and thereby resulting in a final order – Held, if the contention/ objection of the petitioner, who moves the superior Court in revision against the an impugned order, is upheld and the criminal proceeding as a whole gets concluded/ terminated, the impugned order is an intermediate and not interlocutory order, despite the fact that it was passed during an interlocutory stage -- It also implies that the order may be intermediate for accused but interlocutory for the complainant/ informant/ State.

(Para 19)

B. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), Section 190, 397(2), 482 – Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (46 of 2023), Section 210, 438(2), 528 -- Criminal trial -- Intermediate order – Interlucatory order – Revisional jurisdiction – Inherent powers -- Complainant preferred the criminal revision against the impugned order being aggrieved on the ground that out of 23 proposed accused persons, only one accused has been summoned by learned Judicial Magistrate, and only for the offences punishable u/ss 323 and 506 of the IPC and he is seeking cognizance of additional offences punishable u/s 119, 143, 147, 166, 167, 207, 209, 217, 218, 219, 220, 228, 120B, 448, 504 and 511 of the IPC – Held, if the petition is allowed, the Proceedings before the court below would not get terminated or concluded -- Impugned order is interlocutory and not intermediate one for the complainant -- Hence, the revision petition filed by him is barred under Section 397(2) Cr.PC/ 438(2) B.N.S.S. -- Remedy of the complainant lies in invoking inherent jurisdiction of this Court as provided under Section 482 Cr.PC/ 528 B.N.S.S.

However, the impugned order would have been intermediate order for the accused and he could have preferred revision petition against the summoning order, because in case of setting aside the summoning order, the whole proceeding before the Court below would get terminated.

(Para 19-23)

Posted On: 12-10-2025
279. (SC) (Decided on: 08.10.2025)

A. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (V of 1908), Order 8 Rule 1, Order 5 Rule 1 (1) Proviso -- Commercial suit – Written statement not filed – Right to cross-examine survives -- After the examination-in-chief of PW1 was closed, the cross-examination of Defendant no. 1 was taken as “Nil” by the Trial Court on the ground that defendant had failed to file their written statement within stipulated time -- Said reason is absolutely perverse and is contrary to the right of defence available to the defendant -- Purpose of cross-examination is to elicit the truth from the witness and impeach its credibility -- When the WS was not allowed to be taken on record, the denial of the right to cross-examine cannot be taken away. Ranjit Singh’s case 2024 INSC 724 relied.

(Para 31)

B. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (V of 1908), Order 8 Rule 1, Order 5 Rule 1 (1) Proviso -- Commercial suit – Written statement after 120 days – Second Proviso to Sub-rule (1) of Rule 1 of Order V CPC as amended by the Special Amendment under the Commercial Courts Act, 2015 impose an absolute embargo upon the courts to accept the written statement after the expiry of one hundred twenty (120) days’ -- Timeline of 120 days’ fixed by the statute is not directory but rather mandatory, therefore, commercial courts cannot condone the delay beyond 120 days in filing the WS -- SCG Contracts (India) Pvt. Ltd.’s case (2019) 12 SCC 210 relied.

(Para 26, 27)

C. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (V of 1908), Order 8 Rule 1 – Commercial suit – Written statement after 120 days – Exclusionof Covid-19 period -- Statutory period of 120 days commenced from date of service of summons on 17.07.2021 and as per section 9 of the General Clauses Act, 1897, the date of service had to be excluded therefore, from 18.07.2021, the 120 days’ period commenced and it ended on 14.11.2021 -- In Re: Cognizance for Extension of Limitation (2022) 3 SCC 117 in Suo Moto Writ Petition (C) No. 3 of 2020 by exercise of its powers under Article 142 of the Constitution of India passed series of orders to exclude the period commencing from 15.03.2020 till 28.02.2022 for the purpose of computing the limitation period under any general or special laws in respect of all judicial or quasi-judicial proceedings -- Both the dates fell within the sweep of period between 15.02.2020 to 28.02.2022 -- High Court ought to have excluded the aforesaid period for the purpose of filing the written statement and ought to have permitted the defendant No.1 to file written statement on record and contest the suit on merits rather than dismissing the appeal – Written statement allowed subject to payment of Rs.1 lac as cost.

(Para 28-32)

Posted On: 11-10-2025
280. (SC) (Decided on: 07.02.2025)

A. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), Section 41(1)(ba) – Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (46 of 2023), Section 35(1)(c) -- Cognizable offence – Punishable with more than 7 years – Arrest of accused -- Police officer can arrest a person without an order of a Magistrate or warrant subject to the following conditions:

a) Credible information has been received against the person that he has committed a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment for more than seven years and

b) The police officer has reason to believe on the basis of the information received that such a person has committed the offence.

Hence, a police officer cannot casually arrest a person against whom the commission of an offence punishable with imprisonment for more than seven years is alleged -- He can arrest provided twin conditions in clause (ba) are satisfied. The emphasis is on “credible information” -- He cannot arrest a person under clause (ba) unless credible information is received.

(Para 8)

B. Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002 (15 of 2003), Section 19(1) -- Under Section 19(1) of PMLA, there is a requirement to inform the arrestee of the grounds of arrest.

(Para 10)

C. Constitution of India, Article 21, 22(1) – Life and liberty – Ground of arrest – Communication of – Burden to prove -- Fundamental right of accused – Duty of Magistrate – Violation of Article 21, 22 -- Entitlement of accused for bail :

a) The requirement of informing a person arrested of grounds of arrest is a mandatory requirement of Article 22(1);

b) The information of the grounds of arrest must be provided to the arrested person in such a manner that sufficient knowledge of the basic facts constituting the grounds is imparted and communicated to the arrested person effectively in the language which he understands. The mode and method of communication must be such that the object of the constitutional safeguard is achieved;

c) When arrested accused alleges non-compliance with the requirements of Article 22(1), the burden will always be on the Investigating Officer/Agency to prove compliance with the requirements of Article 22(1);

d) Non-compliance with Article 22(1) will be a violation of the fundamental rights of the accused guaranteed by the said Article. Moreover, it will amount to a violation of the right to personal liberty guaranteed by Article 21 of the Constitution. Therefore, non-compliance with the requirements of Article 22(1) vitiates the arrest of the accused. Hence, further orders passed by a criminal court of remand are also vitiated. Needless to add that it will not vitiate the investigation, charge sheet and trial. But, at the same time, filing of chargesheet will not validate a breach of constitutional mandate under Article 22(1);

e) When an arrested person is produced before a Judicial Magistrate for remand, it is the duty of the Magistrate to ascertain whether compliance with Article 22(1) and other mandatory safeguards has been made; and

f) When a violation of Article 22(1) is established, it is the duty of the court to forthwith order the release of the accused. That will be a ground to grant bail even if statutory restrictions on the grant of bail exist. The statutory restrictions do not affect the power of the court to grant bail when the violation of Articles 21 and 22 of the Constitution is established.

(Para 21)

D. Constitution of India, Article 21, 22 -- Hand-cuffing/ Tying accused with hospital bed -- State of Haryana directed to issue guidelines/ departmental instructions to the police :

(i) to ensure that the act of handcuffing an accused while he is on a hospital bed and tying him to the hospital bed is not committed again.

(ii) to ensure that the constitutional safeguards under Article 22 are strictly followed. If necessary, the State Government shall amend the existing Rules/guidelines.

(Para 33)

Posted On: 11-10-2025
281. (SC) (Decided on: 09.10.2025)

Constitution of India, Article 21, 32 – Children Act, 1960 (60 of 1960) -- Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2000 (56 of 2000), Section 7A, 15(1)(g) -- Indian Penal Code, 1860 (45 of 1860), Section 302, 149 -- Release of murder convict / child after completion of three year custody – Writ jurisdiction – Incident of 2nd November, 1981 -- Petitioner was 12 years 5 months old on the date of the incident -- Sessions Court recorded conviction against the petitioner by taking aid of Section 149 of the IPC -- Purpose for which the Sessions Court directed the petitioner to be kept in a children’s home is no longer feasible now – Petitioner absconded and could be arrested only on 19th May, 2022, and is still in custody -- On the plain terms of Section 7-A, the courts are under an obligation to consider the plea of juvenility and to grant appropriate relief if, at all, in an enquiry it is found that the convict was a juvenile on the date of offence -- Petitioner’s date of birth and his age as on date of the offence are not disputed by the respondent and, thus, no enquiry is needed to ascertain his age -- Petitioner having been behind bars for more than 3 years, his liberty has been curtailed not in accordance with procedure established by law -- Breach of the right guaranteed by Article 21 is writ large and, hence, the benefit of release from detention ought to be extended -- Petitioner ordered to be released, if not wanted in any other case – Writ petition allowed.

(Para 8-15)

Posted On: 11-10-2025
282. (P&H HC) (Reserved on: 20.03.2025 Decided on: 24.04.2025)

A. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), Section 173(8) – Police report – Further invitation – Power of -- Magistrate can exercise the powers for directing further investigation only in exceptional and extraordinary circumstances when there is a serious defect or deficiency in the investigation which is likely to result in miscarriage of justice -- There is no other way to remedy such deficiency or defect in primary investigation.

(Para 13)

B. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), Section 173(8) – Police report – Further invitation – Reasoning – Requirement of -- Learned Additional Chief Judicial Magistrate by observing that since the complainant was not satisfied with the cancellation report, therefore, the matter was being sent for further investigation -- It is apparent that the learned Additional Chief Judicial Magistrate did not apply her judicious mind as no observation whatsoever had been given that there was any serious defect or deficiency in the investigation conducted by the investigating agency which was likely to result in miscarriage of justice or she was not satisfied with any important aspect of investigation already conducted – Held, impugned order is not sustainable in the eyes of law and is liable to be set aside -- Ordered accordingly.

(Para 14)

C. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), Section 482 – Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (46 of 2023), Section 528 -- Inherent powers of High Court – No need to analyze all facts -- In exercise of inherent powers, the High Court is not expected to analyze all the facts, which are to be placed before the High Court -- Power conferred under this section is very specific and to secure the ends of justice or to prevent the abuse of process of Court or to make any such orders as may be necessary to give effect to any order under the Code, such power can be exercised to prevent abuse of process of Court.

(Para 15)

D. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), Section 482 – Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (46 of 2023), Section 528 – Quashing of FIR -- Cancellation report – Further investigation -- Allegations in the FIR against the petitioner are that on 06.10.2022, he had wrongfully restrained and confined the respondent No.2 when he was passing through the backside gate of the Court building of District Court, Ludhiana by forcibly making him sit in an Innova car and pressurizing him to purchase the property of the petitioner on the exaggerated price with threat to otherwise kidnap his children – Location of phone did not show his presence at the place from where the alleged occurrence had taken place -- Matter was reported to the police 24 days after the alleged incident -- It cannot be believed by any dint of imagination that the petitioner had pressurized the respondent No.2 to purchase the same property qua which he was fighting to tooth and nail and had also lodged an another FIR bearing No.151 -- Ingredients for commission of offences punishable u/s 341, 342 and 347 of IPC are not established at all -- Empty threats do not mean that case u/s 506 of IPC is made out – Challan report says that the police/ investigating agency left it to the trial Court to decide as to whether alleged incident had taken place or not? -- Court is competent to exercise jurisdiction at this stage also -- Continuation of criminal proceedings against the petitioner would certainly be an abuse of process and these proceedings cannot be taken recourse to as a weapon of harassment -- FIR and the proceedings arising out of the same quashed.

(Para 19-23)

Posted On: 11-10-2025
284. (P&H HC) (Decided on: 22.09.2025)

A. Constitution of India, Article 226, 227 -- Departmental punishment – Writ jurisdiction -- Scope of interference while exercising jurisdiction under Articles 226/227 of the Constitution of India in disciplinary proceedings is very limited -- Court has no power to look into quantum of sentence/punishment unless and until Court finds that sentence awarded is disproportionate to alleged offence -- Court while exercising its jurisdiction under Article 226 of Constitution of India can look into the procedure followed by authorities, in case, it is found that enquiry officer or disciplinary authority has not considered any evidence on record or misread the evidence or procedure as prescribed by law has not been followed, the Court can interfere.

(Para 6)

B. Constitution of India, Article 226, 227 -- Departmental punishment – Writ jurisdiction -- A writ of certiorari can be issued for correcting errors of jurisdiction committed by inferior courts or tribunals -- Error of jurisdiction includes order by inferior court or tribunal without jurisdiction or in excess of it or as a result of failure to exercise jurisdiction -- A writ can similarly be issued where in exercise of jurisdiction conferred on it, the Court or Tribunal acts illegally or improperly, as for instance, it decides a question without giving an opportunity to be heard to the party affected by the order, or where the procedure adopted in dealing with the dispute is opposed to principles of natural justice -- There is, however, no doubt that the jurisdiction to issue a writ of certiorari is a supervisory jurisdiction and the Court exercising it is not entitled to act as an appellate Court.

(Para 8)

C. Constitution of India, Article 226, 227 – Punishment of forfeiture of five increments with permanent effect -- Writ jurisdiction – No evidence on record proving that accused could not be arrested on account of help of petitioner/ ASI -- Respondent in the departmental proceedings has miserably failed to connect the petitioner with allegations made in the chargesheet -- There was a team of six police officials in whose presence accused escaped from the spot -- It was not duty of the petitioner to arrest accused -- It appears that respondent has attributed entire responsibility to petitioner and held him guilty -- Impugned orders set aside.

(Para 11, 12)

Posted On: 11-10-2025
287. (SC) (Decided on: 09.10.2025)

Constitution of India, Article 233 (2) – Appointment of Additional District Judge – Direct recruitment process/ Advocate Quota – Eligibility of Judicial officer – Reference answered:

(i)    Judicial Officers who have already completed seven years in Bar before they were recruited in the subordinate judicial service would be entitled for being appointed as a District Judge/Additional District Judge in the selection process for the post of District Judges in the direct recruitment process;

(ii)   The eligibility for appointment as a District Judge/Additional District Judge is to be seen at the time of application;

(iii) Though there is no eligibility prescribed under Article 233(2) for a person already in judicial service of the Union or of the State for being appointed as District Judge, in order to provide a level playing field, direction given that a candidate applying as an in-service candidate should have seven years’ combined experience as a Judicial Officer and an advocate;

(iv) A person who has been or who is in judicial service and has a combined experience of seven years or more as an advocate or a Judicial Officer would be eligible for being considered and appointed as a District Judge/Additional District Judge under Article 233 of the Constitution;

(v)   In order to ensure level playing field, further direction given that the minimum age for being considered and appointed as a District Judge/Additional District Judge for both advocates and Judicial Officers would be 35 years of age as on the date of application.

(vi) It is held that the view taken in the judgments of this Court right from Satya Narain Singh (1985) 1 SCC 225 till Dheeraj Mor (2020) 7 SCC 401, which take a view contrary to what has been held hereinabove do not lay down the correct proposition of law.

The reference answered accordingly

All rules framed by the State Governments in consultation with the High Courts which are not in accordance with the aforesaid answers quashed and set aside – Direction given that all the State Governments in consultation with the High Courts shall frame/ amend the rules in accordance with what has been held, within a period of three months.

(Para 171-173)

Posted On: 10-10-2025
293. (SC) (Decided on: 20.05.2025)

A. Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2000 (56 of 2000), Section 7A, 14(1), 15, 49 – Juvenility claimed in SLP – On directions learned Special Judge hold enquiry under Section 7A of the JJ Act --  Reliance upon the matriculation certificate issued by the Bihar School Examination Board, age comes to 17 years when the offence in question was allegedly committed by him – Claim of juvenility could be raised before any court and at any stage -- Convict ‘B’ declared juvenile on the date of offence -- Ordinarily juvenile was required to be dealt with by the Juvenile Justice Board for carrying out necessary inquiry in terms of Section 14 of the JJ Act and thereafter to pass order under Section 15 including an order directing the juvenile to be sent to a special home for a period of 3 years – Now more than four decades have passed by since commission of the offence -- It is neither possible nor feasible to remand the case of appellant No. 3 to the concerned Juvenile Justice Board to carry out the exercise under Sections 14 and 15 of the JJ Act -- Judgment and order of the trial court as affirmed by the High Court qua appellant no. 3 set aside on the ground of juvenility.

(Para 19-23)

B. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), Section 313 -- Indian Penal Code, 1860 (45 of 1860), Section 420, 440, 468, 471, 120B – Prevention of Corruption Act, 1947 (2 of 1947), Section 5(2), 5(1)(d) –  Non-compliance of Section 313 of Cr.P.C. – Acquittal -- Four questions generally were put to the appellants in a most mechanical manner -- These questions did not reflect the specific prosecution evidence which came on record qua the appellants -- As all the incriminating evidence were not put to the notice of the appellants, therefore, there was a clear breach of Section 313 CrPC as well as the principle of audi alteram partem -- Certainly, this caused serious prejudice to the appellants to put forth their case – Such omission is a serious irregularity has completely vitiated the trial -- Allegedly offence committed was from September, 1982 to December, 1982 -- Trial was concluded on 29.05.2006 -- At this distant point of time, instead of aiding the cause of justice, it will lead to miscarriage of justice if the case remanded to the trial court to restart the trial from the stage of recording the statements of the accused persons u/s 313 CrPC -- Appellants held entitled to the benefit of doubt – Conviction and sentence set aside.

(Para 35-39)

Posted On: 10-10-2025
294. (SC) (Decided on: 23.05.2025)

A. Constitution of India, Article 22(1), 22(5) – Arrest – Detention – Communication of grounds to arrestee/ detainee – Right of -- Son of the appellant has been arrested for specific offences as mentioned in the grounds of arrest -- His case is governed by Clause (1) and not by Clause (5) of Article 22 -- However, under both the clauses, certain information has to be supplied to the person arrested and detained -- Under Clause (1), the ground for arrest has to be communicated to the person arrested -- Under Clause (5) the grounds on which the order of detention has been made has to be communicated to the person detained.

-- On learning about the grounds for arrest, the person concerned will be in a position to make an application before the appropriate Court for bail, or move the High Court for a writ of habeas corpus. Further, the information will enable the arrested person to prepare his defence in time for the purposes of his trial. For these reasons, it has been provided by the Constitution that, the ground for the arrest must be communicated to the person arrested as soon as possible.

-- For the purposes of Clause (1) of Article 22, it is not necessary for the authorities to furnish full details of the offence. However, the information should be sufficient to enable the arrested person to understand why he has been arrested. The grounds to be communicated to the arrested person should be somewhat similar to the charge framed by the Court for the trial of a case.

(Para 25-28)

B. Constitution of India, Article 22(1) – Arrest – Communication of grounds to arrestee – Right of -- If a person is arrested on a warrant, the grounds for reasons for the arrest is the warrant itself; if the warrant is read over to him, that is sufficient compliance with the requirement that he should be informed of the grounds for his arrest -- If he is arrested without a warrant, he must be told why he has been arrested -- If he is arrested for committing an offence, he must be told that he has committed a certain offence for which he would be placed on trial -- In order to inform him that he has committed a certain offence, he must be told of the acts done by him which amounts to the offence -- He must be informed of the precise acts done by him for which he would be tried; informing him merely of the law applicable to such acts would not be enough.

(Para 36)

Posted On: 09-10-2025
295. (P&H HC) (Decided on: 28.01.2025)

A. Indian Penal Code, 1860 (45 of 1860), Section 304 Part 1 -- Culpable homicide not amounting to murder -- Dispute regarding a mobile phone one day prior to the occurrence -- On the date of the occurrence an altercation/ occurrence took place between both sides who happened to be at the place of occurrence regarding the mobile phone -- In the  occurrence, accused took out an iron Patti which is a carpenter’s tool from inside his trousers and gave a single blow on the deceased whereas appellant-other accused have caught hold of the deceased from his legs -- The blow was not repeated -- Thus, apparently, it is a case of a sudden occurrence on the spur of the moment after a brief altercation and accused YK has used a carpenter’s tool as a weapon inflicting a single injury only without acting in a cruel manner or taking undue advantage of the situation -- Inevitable conclusion is that the appropriate conviction should be under Section 304 Part I of IPC and not under Section 302 IPC – Sentenced to R.I for 10 years.

(Para 20, 23)

B. Indian Penal Code, 1860 (45 of 1860), Section 304 Part 1 – Culpable homicide not amounting to murder – Common intention – Acquittal – Appellant/ I.S. attributed the role of having caught hold of the deceased from his legs -- Neither was he armed and nor has any injury been attributed to him -- Had he shared a common intention with other appellant/ accused / YK to commit murder he would not have gone unarmed -- It cannot be presumed that appellant-IS was aware of the concealed weapon and accompanied YK to the spot with the common intention to commit the offence of murder – IS/ appellant/ accused given benefit of doubt, acquitted.

(Para 22)

Posted On: 09-10-2025
296. (P&H HC) (Decided on: 03.02.2025)

A. Indian Penal Code, 1860 (45 of 1860), Section 302 – Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (1 of 1872), Section 24 -- Murder – Extra-judicial confession – Evidential value -- Where a murder has been committed in secrecy, it is unlikely that the accused would become garrulous after the commission of the offence and confess to having committed the offence to another person -- It is settled law that an extra-judicial confession is a somewhat weak piece of evidence and is generally used as a corroborative link to lend credibility to the other evidence on record.

(Para 33)

B. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (1 of 1872), Section 9 -- Test Identification Parade/ TIP -- Identification of the accused for the first time in Court has little evidentiary value even though it is for the limited purpose for establishing motive.

(Para 37)

C. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (1 of 1872), Section 8 -- Motive -- In a case of circumstantial evidence motive for the commission of a crime assumes importance.

(Para 37)

D. Indian Penal Code, 1860 (45 of 1860), Section 302 – Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (1 of 1872), Section 45 -- Murder – Acquittal -- Fingerprints from the car had been taken but the report was not exhibited, which was the best evidence to establish that the accused and the deceased had been in the car where the deceased had been murdered – As per the case of the prosecution, the accused had first administered a stupefying substance to the complainant who felt intoxicated, however no attempt was made to take samples of the blood and urine of the complainant -- No stupefying substance was recovered at the instance of the accused pursuant to his arrest -- Chain of circumstantial evidence is certainly not complete so as to conclusively point towards the guilt of the accused – Appeal allowed, accused acquitted.

(Para 40-43)

E. Indian Penal Code, 1860 (45 of 1860), Section 302 – Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (1 of 1872), Section 27 -- Murder -- Circumstantial evidence -- Lie detector test – Evidential value -- A lie detector test can be administered only upon consent of an accused -- Mere refusal would not provide a missing link in the chain of circumstantial evidence -- Assuming the accused did submit himself to a lie detector test and stated something inculpating himself the said statement could not be categorized as material evidence against him -- Conducting of lie a detector test is merely an aid in investigation in case the accused discloses any such relevant information.

(Para 42)