Latest Updates

Posted On: 07-11-2025
207. (SC) (Decided on: 07.11.2025)

Constitution of India, Article 32 -- Animal Birth Control Rules, 2023 -- Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 (59 of 1960) -- Stray dogs bites : Directions issued having regard to the alarming rise in incidents of dog bites within institutional areas such as educational institutions, hospitals, sports complexes, bus stands/depots (including Inter-State Bus Terminals) and railway stations, in the interest of public safety, health, and management of stray dogs: -

-- The State Governments and Union Territories shall through their respective local/ municipal authorities, within a period of two weeks, identify all Government and private educational institutions, hospitals (including district hospitals, primary health centres, and medical colleges), public sports complexes or stadia, bus stands/depots (including Inter-State Bus Terminals) and railway stations situated within their territorial limits.

-- The administrative heads of the aforesaid institutions shall through their respective local/ municipal authorities, under the overall supervision of the District Magistrate concerned, ensure that the premises are secured by adequate fencing, boundary walls, gates and such other structural or administrative measures as may be necessary to prevent the ingress of stray dogs. The said exercise shall be completed as soon as possible and preferably within a period of 8 weeks from today.

-- The management of every educational institution, hospital, sports complex, bus stand/depot (including Inter-State Bus Terminal) and railway station identified under Direction (A) shall designate a Nodal Officer responsible for the upkeep and cleanliness of the premises and for ensuring that stray dogs do not enter or inhabit the campus. The details of the said officer shall be displayed prominently at the entrance and notified to the jurisdictional municipal body/authority.

-- The local municipal authorities and panchayats shall carry out regular inspections, at least once in every three months, of all such premises to ensure that no stray dog habitats exist within or in the immediate vicinity of these institutions. Any lapse in this regard shall be viewed seriously, and responsibility shall be fixed upon the concerned municipal officials/administrative authorities.

-- It shall be the responsibility of the jurisdictional municipal body/authority to forthwith remove every stray dog found within the premises of an educational institution, hospital (public or private), sports complex, bus stand/depot (including Inter-State Bus Terminal) or railway station and to shift such animal/s to a designated shelter, after due sterilisation and vaccination, in accordance with the Animal Birth Control Rules, 2023. The stray dogs so picked up shall not be released back to the same location from which they were picked up. We have consciously directed the non-release of such stray dogs to the same location from which they were picked up, as permitting the same would frustrate the very effect of the directions issued to liberate such institutional areas from the presence of stray dogs.

-- All Government and private hospitals shall maintain a mandatory stock of anti-rabies vaccines and immunoglobulin at all times.

-- Every school and educational institution shall be directed by the Ministry of Education, Government of India, to conduct awareness sessions for students and staff on preventive behaviour around animals, first-aid in case of bites, and immediate reporting protocols.

-- The management of stadiums and sports complexes shall ensure the deployment of security or ground-keeping personnel specifically tasked with around the clock vigil against the entry or habitation of stray dogs.

-- The railway authorities having jurisdiction over the railway stations as well as the State transport corporations and municipal authorities having jurisdiction over bus stands, depots and Inter-State Bus Terminals, shall ensure that such public-transport premises/facilities are effectively secured and maintained so as to prevent the habitation or movement of stray dogs within their premises. Proper waste-management systems shall be implemented to eliminate food sources that attract animals, and regular inspections shall be conducted to detect and address the presence of stray dogs.

-- Animal Welfare Board of India shall, within four weeks, issue detailed Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) for prevention of dog bites and management of stray dogs in institutional premises (public or private) including but not limited to Government and private educational institutions, hospitals (including district hospitals, primary health centres, and medical colleges), and sports complexes or stadia, to be uniformly adopted across all States and Union Territories.

The aforesaid directions in continuation of and in furtherance of Court’s order dated 22nd August, 2025, to ensure that the menace of stray dog attacks within institutional areas is curbed through effective preventive and administrative mechanisms. The primary objective is to safeguard the fundamental right to life and safety of citizens, particularly children, students, patients, and sportspersons, while ensuring compliance with the principles embodied in the Animal Birth Control Rules, 2023 framed under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 -- Any reported non-compliance shall be viewed very seriously and may invite penalties/consequences including but not limited to the initiation of suo moto contempt proceedings against the erring officials.

(Para 25, 26, 32)

Posted On: 07-11-2025
208. (SC) (Decided on: 22.08.2025)

Constitution of India, Article 32 -- Animal Birth Control Rules, 2023 -- Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 (59 of 1960) -- Stray dogs bites – Suo moto directions issued / Modified/ Clarified/ Supplemented: Direction dated 11.08.2025/ 22.08.2025 --

“2. Pursuant to the taking of suo moto cognizance, the matter came to be listed before the Bench on 11th August 2025, on which, the following directions were issued: -

“12. For the present, the aforesaid directions shall be complied with and implemented scrupulously. We, at the cost of repetition, again make it abundantly clear to the above concerned authorities in clear words that it shall at the earliest: -

(i) Start picking up and rounding the stray dogs from all localities of Delhi, Ghaziabad, NOIDA, Faridabad, Gurugram as well as areas on the outskirts, and relocate these dogs into designated shelters/pounds.

(ii) The appropriate authorities of NCT of Delhi, NOIDA, Ghaziabad, Gurugram & Faridabad are directed to immediately create dog shelters/pounds and report to this Court the creation of such infrastructure all over the National Capital Region (NCR). A report in this regard shall be filed before this Court within a period of eight-weeks.

(iii) In no circumstances, should these stray dogs after their relocation be once again released back onto the streets. In this regard proper records should be maintained by the concerned authorities regularly.

(iv) The stray dogs shall be captured, sterilized, dewormed and immunized as required by Animal Birth Control Rules, 2023 and as noted above, shall not be released back. The dog shelters/pounds should have sufficient personnel to sterilize, deworm and immunize stray dogs and also for looking after the stray dogs who would be detained.

(v) We further make it clear that both the exercise of rounding up of stray dogs as well as the creation of necessary infrastructure in the form of shelters/pounds for the relocation, sterilization, deworming and immunization, shall be undertaken simultaneously. We do not want to hear about even a semblance of lethargy from the concerned authorities on the pre-text of awaiting the creation of shelters/pounds, otherwise, we will proceed to take strict action against these authorities. All authorities are directed to immediately begin the picking up stray dogs and in the same breadth creation of appropriate and adequate shelter homes and pounds across the National Capital Region.

13. Any hindrance or obstruction that may be caused by any individual or organization in the smooth and effective implementation of our aforesaid directions will be viewed as contempt of this Court and we shall proceed to take appropriate action in accordance with law.”

(Emphasis supplied)

Directions supplemented, Modified and clarified on 22.08.2025 as under:

33. We, therefore, feel that a holistic approach requires mollification of the directions issued vide order dated 11th August, 2025. Accordingly, the directions issued by the two-Judge bench of this Court are supplemented, modified, and clarified in the terms indicated below: -

a. Municipal authorities shall continue to comply with the directions contained in paras 12(i) and 12(ii) of the subject order.

b. The directions contained in paras 12(iii) and 12(iv), to the extent that they prohibit the release of the picked up strays, shall be kept in abeyance for the time being. The dogs that are picked up shall be sterilised, dewormed, vaccinated, and released back to the same area from which they were picked up.

It is, however, clarified that this relocation shall not apply to the dogs infected with rabies or suspected to be infected with rabies, and those that display aggressive behaviour. Such dogs shall be sterilised and immunised, but under no circumstances should they be released back onto the streets. Furthermore, as far as possible, such stray dogs shall be kept in a separate pound/shelter after sterilisation and immunisation.

c. The directions contained in para 12(v) shall remain subject to the directions given by us in paras (a) and (b).

d. Municipal authorities shall forthwith commence an exercise for creating dedicated feeding spaces for the stray dogs in each municipal ward. The feeding areas shall be created/identified keeping in view the population and concentration of stray dogs in the particular municipal ward. Gantries/notice boards shall be placed near such designated feeding areas, mentioning that stray dogs shall only be fed in such areas. Under no condition shall the feeding of stray dogs on the streets be permitted. The persons found feeding the dogs on the streets in contravention of the above directions shall be liable to be proceeded against under the relevant legal framework.

The aforesaid directions are being issued in view of the reports regarding untoward incidents caused by unregulated feeding of stray dogs and to ensure that the practice of feeding dogs on roads and in public places is eliminated, as the said practice creates great difficulties for the common man walking on the streets.

e. Each municipal authority shall create a dedicated helpline number for reporting incidents of violation of the above directions. On such a report being received, appropriate measures shall be taken against the individuals/NGOs concerned.

f. The direction given in para 13 of the order dated 11th August 2025, is reiterated with a slight modification that no individual or organisation shall cause any hindrance or obstruction in the effective implementation of the directions given above. In case any public servant acting in compliance with the aforesaid directions is obstructed, then the violator/s shall be liable to face prosecution for obstructing the public servant acting in discharge of official duty.

g. Each individual dog lover and each NGO that has approached this Court shall deposit a sum of Rs.25,000/- and Rs.2,00,000/-, respectively, with the Registry of this Court within a period of 7 days, failing which they shall not be allowed to appear in the matter any further. The amounts so deposited shall be utilised in the creation of the infrastructure and facilities for the stray dogs under the aegis of the respective municipal bodies.

h. The desirous animal lover/s shall be free to move the application to the concerned municipal body for adoption of the street dogs, upon which the  identified/selected street dog/s shall be tagged and given in adoption to the applicant. It shall be the responsibility of the applicant(s) to ensure that the adopted stray dogs do not return to the streets.

i. The municipal authorities shall file an affidavit of compliance with complete statistics of resources, viz., dog pounds, veterinarians, dog catching personnel, specially modified vehicles/cages available as on date for the purpose of compliance of the ABC Rules.

34. Since the application of the ABC Rules is uniform all over the country and the same issues which have been taken up in the Suo Moto Writ Petition have either cropped up or are likely to exist in every State, we propose to expand the scope of this matter beyond the confines of New Delhi and the NCR region.”

(Para 2, 33-36)

Posted On: 02-11-2025
220. (Delhi HC) (Decided on: 23.09.2025)

A. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), Section 125 – Maintenance to child – Matrimonial settlement – Effect of -- While there may have been a Settlement for the maintenance past, present and future between the Husband/ Petitioner and wife/ Respondent No.1, but while entering into such matrimonial Settlement, the right of the child cannot be compromised and these Settlements do not impact the independent rights of the child -- If the wife/ Respondent No.1 is able to prove changed circumstances, she may get entitled to maintenance -- Rights of the child to claim maintenance from the father, cannot be rejected at the outset.

(Para 33-38)

B. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), Section 125 – Talaq-e-Khula -- Maintenance to wife – Entitlement of -- Petitioner’s assertion that the wife/ Respondent No.1 having voluntarily taken a divorce by Talaq-e-Khula, is not entitled to any maintenance u/s 125(4) Cr.P.C – Held, once a wife is divorced, she is per se entitled to maintenance u/s 125 Cr.P.C irrespective of the ground or the manner in which the divorce is taken -- This contention of the Petitioner is, therefore not tenable.

(Para 37)

C. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), Section 125 – Maintainability of maintenance petition – Interim maintenance -- Maintainability of the Petition u/s 125 Cr.P.C and question of award of Interim Maintenance are inseparable -- Question of grant of maintenance can be determined only after the determination of maintainability of the Petition u/s 125 Cr.P.C.

(Para 41)

D. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), Section 125 – Interim maintenance – Consideration of -- Ld. Family Judge before granting any Interim Maintenance, would have to answer the pertinent question of whether the husband has neglected or refused to give maintenance to the wife and whether she is unable to maintain herself -- Matter is listed for Interim Maintenance and these questions would naturally be answered by the Ld. Judge before granting or declining the Interim Maintenance.

(Para 42)

Posted On: 02-11-2025
221. (SC) (Decided on: 09.10.2025)

A. Specific Relief Act, 1963 (47 of 1963), Section 12 -- Severability of contract – Performance of part of contract -- While adjudicating suits, or when examining the validity of agreements or contracts, the Courts generally have the power to sever the invalid portion of an agreement from its valid portion and give effect to the latter -- No bar on the application of the doctrine of severability in suits for specific performance, however, this power must be exercised with great caution and only in exceptional cases -- Court cannot remove the essential part of an agreement or the very object for which it was executed -- While exercising such power, the Courts must refrain from re-writing or re-constructing the agreement between the parties to make it work.

(Para 20-22)

B. Specific Relief Act, 1963 (47 of 1963), Section 12 -- Severability of contract – Performance of part of contract -- Agreement for construction of eight flats – Agreement was contrary to law and therefore unenforceable – Trial Court applied Section 12 of the Specific Relief Act, directing transfer of the ‘rights over the land’ to the Plaintiff, subject to compliance with the Building Regulations limiting construction to three flats -- Held, Trial Court was not justified in reworking the agreement to make it enforceable by removing its essential object-namely, the construction of eight flats on the subject land -- Trial Court re-wrote the agreement, which it could not have done since the very essence of the agreement was the construction of eight flats -- Respondent is a public sector bank and it is not expected from the State or its instrumentalities to enter into camouflage agreements and especially where the object of the agreement would result in law being violated – Suit dismissed.

(Para 19, 24-27)

Posted On: 01-11-2025
227. (SC) (Decided on: 15.09.2025)

A. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (1 of 1872), Section 3, 65B – Electronic records – Document – Exhibition of Compact Disc (CD) – Playing of CD during deposition – Requirement of -- Author of the video not only deposed that he recorded the video, but he also gave a certificate, as contemplated under subsection (4) of Section 65B of the Evidence Act, to make the CD admissible in evidence – High Court did not dispute that the electronic record was duly exhibited -- High Court opined that the video would become relevant only if it is played during deposition of each witness so that the witness could explain its contents in his own words resulting in a transcript of the video – Held, this is a strange and unacceptable reasoning for the simple reason that the CD is an electronic record and once the requirement of Section 65B is fulfilled it becomes an admissible piece of evidence, like a document, and the video recorded therein is akin to contents of a document which can be seen and heard to enable the Court to draw appropriate inference(s) -- It is not the requirement of law that the contents of the video would become admissible only if it is reduced to a transcript in the words of a witness who created the video or is noticed in the video.

(Para 19)

B. Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 (61 of 1985), Section 8(c), 20(b)(ii)(C) -- Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), Section 293 – NDPS – Chemical examiner – Deposition of – Requirement of – As far as non-production of Chemical Examiner as a witness is concerned, u/s 293 of CrPC, report of a Chemical Examiner is admissible even if he is not produced as a witness though, the Court may summon and examine him as to the subject matter of the report -- There is no requirement of law that Chemical Examiner would have to be called in each NDPS case to prove the report when it is otherwise admissible under sub-section (1) of Section 293 of CrPC.

(Para 21)

C. Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 (61 of 1985), Section 8(c), 20(b)(ii)(C), 52A – NDPS – Production of contraband in Trial – Requirements of – Mere non-production of the seized contraband during trial may not be fatal if there is reliable evidence in respect of its seizure, drawing of samples therefrom, and FSL report relating to the sample drawn from the seized material – However, to ensure that no adverse inference is drawn against the prosecution for non-production of the seized contraband, documents prepared in terms of the provisions of Section 52-A, inter alia, evidencing preparation of inventory of seized contraband and drawing of samples therefrom, would have to be brought on record – Likewise, evidence should be there that the sample drawn from the inventory was sent to FSL in a sealed container/ envelop, as per guidelines, and that the seal was found intact at the end of FSL – This is to obviate any doubt regarding sample being tampered in transit – Similarly, FSL’s report along with the sample tested by it is to be placed on record so that there remains no doubt regarding the sample tested.

(Para 30, 31)

D. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), Section 386(b)(i), 391 -- Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 (61 of 1985), Section 8(c), 20(b)(ii)(C), 52A – NDPS -- Re-trial – Additional evidence -- High Court, observed that the representative sample was not opened before the Court at the time of recording of statement of the concerned witness -- Be that as it may, this was not a ground to direct for a retrial when the appellate court has power to take additional evidence u/s 391 of CrPC, which, inter alia, can be exercised to exhibit a document or material already on the record of the Court -- And if those defects are fatal to the prosecution, the appellate court is free to take its decision as may be warranted in the facts of the case. But, in any event, it cannot be a ground to direct a re-trial.

(Para 33)

Posted On: 01-11-2025
228. (SC) (Decided on: 29.10.2025)

A. Specific Relief Act, 1963 (47 of 1963), Section 10 -- Suit for Specific performance -- Termination of contract – Effect of -- A contract may give right to the parties, or any one of the parties, to terminate the contract on existence of certain conditions -- In terms thereof, the contract is terminated, a doubt over subsistence of the contract is created and, therefore, without seeking a declaration that termination is bad in law, a decree for specific performance may not be available -- However, where there is no such right conferred on any party to terminate the contract, or the right so conferred is waived, yet the contract is terminated unilaterally, such termination may be taken as a breach of contract by repudiation and the party aggrieved may, by treating the contract as subsisting, sue for specific performance without seeking a declaratory relief qua validity of such termination.

(Para 32)

B. Specific Relief Act, 1963 (47 of 1963), Section 10 -- Suit for specific performance – Termination of contract – Effect of – Declaration that termination of contract was invalid – Requirement of -- By accepting Rs.1,95,000 after expiry of six months, D-1 and D-2, firstly, waived their right, as available to them under the contract, to forfeit the advance consideration/ earnest money,

Secondly, by such acceptance and endorsement on the back of the agreement they treated the contract as subsisting and,

thirdly, by transferring part of the subject matter of the agreement in favour of D-3, even before serving a forfeiture notice, they committed a breach of the contract.

In such circumstances, the plaintiff had an option to treat the contract as subsisting and sue for specific performance more so when termination was a void act, no longer permissible under the varied contract -- Suit for specific performance was maintainable even without seeking a declaration that termination of the contract was invalid in law.

(Para 33)

C. Specific Relief Act, 1963 (47 of 1963), Section 10 – Suit for specific performance -- Evidence on record that the Tehsildar had reported regarding possession of the plaintiff over the suit property though that report was subject to final adjudication in the suit – In such circumstances, merely because plaintiff’s claim that property was in his possession was not accepted, the relief of specific performance cannot be declined, particularly, when the plaintiff had already paid over 90% of the agreed consideration and paid additional amount also as demanded by D-1 and D-2 -- Further, D-3 was a related party of D-1 and D-2 and, therefore, not a bona fide purchaser -- Not a fit case where discretionary relief of specific performance should have been denied – High Court erred in law by interfering with the decree of specific performance passed by the first appellate court -- Judgment and decree(s) of the High Court is/are set aside and that of the first appellate court is/are restored.

(Para 39, 40)

Posted On: 30-10-2025
231. (SC) (Decided on: 28.10.2025)

A. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), Section 378, 386 -- Appeal against acquittal – Power of Appellate Court -- Appellate Court has full power to review and reappreciate evidence in an appeal against acquittal u/s 378 and 386 of the Cr.P.C. -- However, due to the reinforced or ‘double’ presumption of innocence after acquittal, interference must be limited -- If two reasonable views are possible on the basis of the record, the acquittal should not be disturbed -- Judicial intervention is only warranted where the Trial Court’s view is perverse, based on misreading or ignoring material evidence, or results in manifest miscarriage of justice -- Moreover, the Appellate Court must address the reasons given by the Trial Court for acquittal before reversing it and assigning its own.

(Para 12)

B. Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 (49 of 1988), Section 7, 20 – Corruption case -- Demand of illegal gratification and acceptance – Presumption -- Statutory presumption u/s 20 of the PC Act is not automatic and arises only once the foundational facts of demand and acceptance are proved.

(Para 18)

C. Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 (49 of 1988), Section 7, 20 – Corruption case -- Acquittal by Trial Court – Conviction in appeal by High Court -- Demand of illegal gratification and acceptance – Proof of – Sole basis of the prosecution to prove demand and acceptance is the narration of the complainant, a close scrutiny of which reveals serious infirmities -- Both, the DSP and the Inspector of ACB, admit they did not question the complainant on this point, and till date no explanation has ever been offered for keeping Mediator/ R out of the room -- They also admit that they did not question any of the other office staff or visitors -- Other mediator B was not examined by the prosecution at all -- These circumstances are nowhere addressed by the High Court -- Such omissions cannot be brushed aside lightly, as they strike at the root of the prosecution version and cast serious doubt on whether demand and acceptance were proved beyond reasonable doubt – Order of acquittal restored.

(Para 20-22, 35)

Posted On: 30-10-2025
232. (SC) (Decided on: 28.10.2025)

A. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (1 of 1872), Section 59 -- Injured eye witness version -- Ocular evidence is the best evidence unless there are reasons to doubt it -- Testimony of an injured eyewitness is accorded a special status in law -- As being a stamped witness, his presence cannot be doubted -- Deposition by the injured eyewitness should be relied upon unless there are strong grounds for rejection of his evidence on the basis of major contradictions and discrepancies -- Keeping in view the principle that an injured eyewitness enjoys a presumption of truth and the fact that the same is supported by the medical evidence, testimony does not suffer from any infirmity and has to be considered while fixing the guilt of the appellants.

(Para 33-37)

B. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (1 of 1872), Section 8 -- Motive -- Motive although is a relevant factor in all criminal cases, it, however, is not a sine qua non for establishing the guilt of the accused persons -- Motive even in a case which rests on an eyewitness account, lends strength to the prosecution’s case -- Fact of motive has to be seen in the light of the other cogent evidence available -- Fact of a prior enmity on account of the boundary dispute establishes the motive for the commission of the offence.

(Para 42, 43)

C. Indian Penal Code, 1860 (45 of 1860), Section 300 Exception 4, 302 – Murder – Culpable homicide not amounting to murder -- Nature and extent of injuries, coupled with the surrounding circumstances, leave no doubt that they were intentionally inflicted -- Use of the sharp edges of spades, phawadas to deliver fatal blows on the heads of the deceased demonstrates that the assailants acted with a clear motive and object of permanently eliminating them, thereby committing their murder -- Thus, the circumstances to bring the case under the fourth exception to Section 300 of the IPC do not exist.

(Para 45)

D. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), Section 154 -- Delay in FIR -- It is a settled position that delay in filing of the FIR cannot be considered to be fatal to the case of the prosecution when there is direct evidence and when the delay in filing the FIR is well explained.

(Para 46)

E. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (1 of 1872), Section 27 -- Non-recovery of the weapons cannot be considered fatal to the case of the prosecution if there is consistent medical and ocular evidence.

(Para 49)

F. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), Section 173 -- Omission by Investigation officer – Effect of -- Any omission on the part of the investigating officer cannot go against the prosecution’s case -- Story of the prosecution is to be examined dehors such omission by the investigating agency -- Otherwise, it would shake the confidence of the people not merely in the law enforcing agency but also in the administration of justice.

(Para 50)

Posted On: 29-10-2025
233. (Raj. HC) (Reserved on: 25.08.2025 Decided on: 01.09.2025)

A. Indian Penal Code, 1860 (45 of 1860), Section 302 – Murder -- Circumstantial evidence -- For conviction on the basis of circumstantial evidence, the chain should be completed and a missing link shall prove fatal to the case of prosecution.

(Para 10)

B. Indian Penal Code, 1860 (45 of 1860), Section 302 – Murder -- Circumstantial evidence – Last seen theory -- Last seen theory is a weak piece of evidence – PW-1 husband of the deceased had seen the deceased going with the appellant -- There was a gap of thirty five days in recovery of remains of the deceased -- Blood smeared clothes of the deceased were not sent for Forensic Science Laboratory (FSL) examination -- Recovery of skeleton of the deceased at instance of appellant in itself cannot lead to only one logical conclusion that the appellant had killed the deceased -- Circumstantial evidence dented by following missing links thereby leaving the chain incomplete;

(i) recovery of the knife at the instance of the appellant from an open space had not enhance the case of the prosecution and there were no blood stains on the knife; no fingerprints were taken and in absence of determination of cause of death there was no link of the knife being used in the incident;

(ii) the kadiya recovered concealed in the floor of the room of the appellant were easily available in the market as per deposition of PW-2 and PW-4. Further PW-4 in cross-examination admitted that the kadiya at the first instance was shown to him in the police station prior to identification;

(iii) the blood smeared clothes recovered from the spot of recovery of the skeleton of the deceased were not sent for FSL and there was no proof that the clothes having human blood stains or that of the deceased. The recovery of the blood smeared clothes is of no help to the case of the prosecution;

(iv) the evidence of last seen set up by the prosecution remained uncorroborated with other evidence and there was a time gap of thirty five days between the appellant being last seen with the deceased and recovery of the skeleton and lastly;

(v) recovery of the skeleton of the deceased does not prove the case of the prosecution beyond reasonable doubt, moreso, in absence of the cause of death having not been determined in the post-mortem report.

Appellant given benefit of doubt and acquitted.

(Para 13-20)

Posted On: 29-10-2025
235. (J&K&L HC) (Reserved on: 07.10.2025 Decided on: 10.10.2025)

A. Payment of Wages Act, 1936 (4 of 1936), Section 15, 17 -- Limitation Act, 1963 (36 of 1963), Section 5 -- Appeal beyond the statutory period of limitation of 30 days – Condonation of delay – Applicability of Section 5 of Limitation Act -- General provisions of the Limitation Act cannot be invoked -- Payment of Wages Act, being a beneficial and self-contained legislation, prescribes not only the manner and mode of appeal but also the conditions precedent for its maintainability, including the mandatory requirement u/s 17(1A) of furnishing a certificate of deposit of the amount payable under the direction appealed against -- This requirement is not directory but mandatory in nature, as it seeks to protect the rights of the workman and ensure that the employer does not frustrate the benefit of the award by filing dilatory appeals.

(Para 19-22)

B. Payment of Wages Act, 1936 (4 of 1936), Section 15, 17 – Appeal -- Certificate of deposit of the amount – Requirement of -- Respondent did not file any such certificate – Ld. Appellate Court, proceeded to entertain the appeal on the strength of a mere receipt of a cheque issued by the Assistant Labour Commissioner, which by no stretch of interpretation can be equated with the statutory requirement of a certificate of deposit -- Failure to comply with such mandatory statutory precondition renders the appeal itself non-maintainable in the eyes of law, and consequently, the entire proceedings before the Appellate Court stand vitiated.

(Para 24)

C. Payment of Wages Act, 1936 (4 of 1936), Section 15, 17 – Appeal – Condonation of delay – Rule of natural justice – Opportunity of hearing -- Ld. Appellate Court, while allowing the application for condonation of delay, also proceeded to decide the main appeal on merits in a single composite order  without affording the petitioner an opportunity of being heard -- Such a course of action is contrary to the fundamental principles of natural justice -- Petitioner was not given a fair opportunity to contest the appeal on merits, and the ld. Appellate Court acted in undue haste by deciding both matters together, which amounts to a gross procedural irregularity.

(Para 27)

D. Payment of Wages Act, 1936 (4 of 1936), Section 15, 17 – Limitation Act, 1963 (36 of 1963), Section 5 -- Appeal – Condonation of delay – Violation of Rule of natural justice – Finding of fact without calling records – Effect of -- Learned Appellate Court has misdirected itself both on law and facts:

Firstly, it wrongly invoked Section 5 of the Limitation Act despite clear statutory exclusion under the Payment of Wages Act.

Secondly, it entertained the appeal without compliance of the mandatory deposit certificate requirement under Section 17(1A).

Thirdly, it decided the condonation and the appeal together without hearing the petitioner, thereby violating natural justice.

Fourthly, Ld. Appellate Court recorded findings of fact without calling for the original record, thus acting beyond jurisdiction.

These cumulative infirmities render the impugned judgment legally unsustainable.

(Para 28, 29)

Posted On: 26-10-2025
242. (SC) (Decided on: 19.09.2025)

A. Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 (26 of 1881), Section 138 Proviso (b) – Cheque bounce complaint – Demand notice u/ 138 of NI Act – Validity of -- It is mandatory that the demand in the statutory notice has to be the very amount of the cheque -- After mentioning the exact cheque amount, the sender of the service may claim in the notice amounts such as legal charges, notice charges, interest and such other additional amounts, provided the cheque amount is specified to be demanded for payment -- When the cheque amount is not mentioned in the Proviso (b) notice or the amount different than the actual cheque amount is mentioned, in the notice, such notice would stand invalid in eye of law -- In the event of the main ingredient not being satisfied on account of discrepancy in the amount of cheque and one mentioned in the notice, all proceedings u/s 138 of the NI Act would fall flat as bad in law.

(Para 8)

B. Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 (26 of 1881), Section 138 Proviso (b) – Cheque bounce complaint – Demand notice u/ 138 of NI Act – Validity of -- Cheque which was drawn by the respondent was for Rs.1,00,000/- whereas in the notice issued under Proviso (b) to Section 138 of the NI Act against the respondent, appellant mentions the amount of Rs.2,00,000/- -- Rigours of law on this score being strict, the defence would not hold good that the different amount mentioned in the notice was out of inadvertence -- Even if the cheque number was mentioned in the notice, since the amount was different, it created an ambiguity and differentiation about the ‘said amount’ -- Any elasticity cannot be adopted in the interpretation -- It has to be given technical interpretation -- Typographical error can be no defence -- Notice stood invalid and bad in law -- Order of quashment of notice was eminently proper and legal.

(Para 8.1, 8.2, 10)

C. Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 (26 of 1881), Section 138 Proviso (b) – Cheque bounce complaint – Demand notice u/ 138 of NI Act – Validity of -- When the provision is penal and the offence is technical, there is no escape from holding that the ‘said amount’ in proviso (b) cannot be the amount other than mentioned in the cheque in question for dishonour of which the notice is received, nor the mentioning of omnibus amount in the notice would fulfil the requirement -- It has to be held that in order to make a valid notice under the Proviso (b) to Section 138 of the NI Act, it is mandatory that ‘said amount’ to be mentioned therein is the very amount of cheque, and none other.

(Para 9)

Posted On: 25-10-2025
245. (SC) (Decided on: 15.10.2025)

A. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (V of 1908), Order 7 Rule 11 (d) – Rejection of plaint – Suit barred by law -- While considering rejection of the plaint thereunder only the averments made in the plaint and nothing else is to be considered to find out whether the suit is barred by law -- At this stage, the defense is not to be considered -- Thus, whether the suit is barred by any law or not is to be determined on the basis of averments made in the plaint.

(Para 15)

B. Mutation entries -- It is well settled that mutation entries do not confer title -- They serve a fiscal purpose, that is, to realize tax from the person whose name is recorded in the revenue records.

(Para 16)

C. Limitation Act, 1963 (36 of 1963), Article 65 – Suit for declaration and possession – Limitation -- Suit was not for a mere declaration of the Will being null and void but for possession as well -- Plaintiff claimed title over the suit land by natural succession and sought possession based on title – Where a suit is for possession of immovable property or any interest therein, based on title, the limitation period is 12 years when the possession of the defendants becomes adverse to the plaintiff.

(Para 17)

D. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (V of 1908), Order 7 Rule 11 (d) – Limitation Act, 1963 (36 of 1963), Section 27, Article 65 – Rejection of plaint -- Limitation – Adverse possession -- When a suit is instituted for possession, based on title, to defeat the suit on the ground of adverse possession, the burden is on the defendant to prove adverse possession for the prescriptive period -- This, therefore, cannot be an issue on which the plaint could be rejected at the threshold.

(Para 18)

E. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (V of 1908), Order 7 Rule 11 (d) – Partial rejection of plaint – Permissibility of -- Where several reliefs are sought in suit, if any one of the reliefs is within the period of limitation, the plaint cannot be rejected as barred by law by taking recourse to Order 7 Rule 11 (d) of CPC.

(Para 19)

F. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (V of 1908), Order 2 Rule 2, Order 7 Rule 11 (d) – Rejection of plaint -- Suit barred by Order 2 Rule 2 of CPC – Plea of -- First suit instituted by the predecessor-in-interest of the appellant was not tried -- In fact, the plaint of that suit was rejected under Order 7 Rule 11 of CPC as not being properly framed -- In such circumstances, a fresh suit with appropriate relief cannot be, prima facie, barred by Rule 2 of Order 2 of CPC -- Therefore, the trial court was justified in directing that the issue, whether the suit is barred by Order 2 Rule 2 of CPC, shall be considered and decided during trial.

(Para 22)